3i-Infotech

Aptitude Question Paper (2003)
Date: Duration: 90 minutes Max. Marks:

Instructions: 1) All the questions are compulsory.
1. Figures to the right indicate the marks for each question of that section.
2. Answer the questions by drawing a circle around the option that you think is correct 

I. English Language Ability :

A. Part I [1 x 7 = 7 Marks] 

Questions 1-7 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see
four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Choose the one word or
phrase that best completes the sentence. 

1. After the funeral, the residents of the apartment building 
__________ 
a. sent faithfully flowers all weeks to the cemetery. 
b. sent to the cemetery each week flowers faithfully. 
c. sent flowers faithfully to the cemetery each week. 
d. sent each week faithfully to the cemetery flowers.
2. Because the first pair of pants did not fit properly, he asked for
________ 
a. another pants 
b. others pants 
c. the others ones 
d. another pair
3. The committee has met and _________ 
a. they have reached a decision 
b. it has formulated themselves some opinions 
c. its decision was reached at 
d. it has reached a decision
4. Alfred Adams has not ________ 
a. lived lonelynessly in times previous 
b. never before lived sole 
c. ever lived alone before 
d. before lived without the company of his friends
5. John's score on the test is the highest in the class; ___________ 
a. he should study last night 
b. he should have studied last night 
c. he must have studied last night 
d. he must had to study last night
6. Henry will not be able to attend the meeting tonight because 
_________ 
a. he must to teach a class 
b. he will be teaching a class 
c. of he will teach a class 
d. he will have teaching a class
7. Having been served lunch, __________ 
a. the problem was discussed by the members of the committee 
b. the committee members discussed the problem 
c. it was discussed by the committee members the problem 
d. a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee
A.
Part II [1 x 7 = 7 Marks] 

In question 8-14, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The
four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D).
Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for
the sentence to be correct. 
1. The main office of the factory can be found in Maple Street in New York City. 
a. the main     b. be found  c. in     d. in

2. Because there are less members present tonight than there were last night,
we must wait until the next meeting to vote. 
a. less       b. than        c. were      d. to vote

3. David is particularly fond of cooking, and he often cooks really delicious meals. 
a. particularly       b. fond of        c. often cooks           d. really

4. The progress made in space travel for the early 1960s is remarkable. 
a. progress    b. made           c. in space         d. for

5. Sandra has not rarely missed a play or concert since she was seventeen years old. 
a. not rarely       b. a play     c. since      d. was seventeen years old

6. The governor has not decided how to deal with the new problems already. 
a. The      b. has      c. how to deal with         d. already

7. There was a very interesting news on the radio this morning about the
earthquake in Italy. 
a. there was         b. a         c. on the          d. about

A.

B. Part III [1 x 6 = 6 Marks] 

In question 15-20, the given pair of words contains a specific relationship
to each other. Select the best pair of choices which expresses the same
relationship as the given.

1. PROCRASTINATOR : DELAY :: 
a. flatterer : undermine 
b. genius : creativity 
c. tyrant : influence 
d. general : salute
2. APIARY : BEE :: 
a. mountain : skier 
b. airport : flight 
c. schedule : event 
d. stable : horse
3. OVATION : APPLAUSE :: 
a. grief : loss 
b. rout : defeat 
c. triumph : failure 
d. pathway : ruin
4. DOLPHIN : FLIPPER :: 
a. insect : antenna 
b. burglar : mask 
c. gull : wing 
d. plane : radar
5. WATERTIGHT : MOISTURE :: 
a. hermetic : air 
b. combatant : strife 
c. somnolent : boredom 
d. ocean : shore
6. PLAYWRIGHT : SCRIPT :: 
a. composer : score 
b. physician : diagnosis 
c. verse : poet 
d. king : parliament
A. Part IV [1 x 5 = 5 Marks] 

In question 21-25, choose the best word, which is most opposite in the meaning to the given word.

1. LUCID 
a. underlying 
b. complex 
c. luxurious 
d. tight
2. LATITUDE 
a. frenzy 
b. attitude 
c. altitude 
d. restriction
3. GRATUITOUS 
a. Noticeable 
b. Useful 
c. Needful 
d. Original
4. MERITORIOUS 
a. Simple 
b. Inferior 
c. Unrewarding 
d. Young
5. VOUCHSAFE 
a. steal 
b. postpone 
c. refuse 
d. injure
A. Passage Comprehension [1 x 7 = 7 Marks] 
Line 1. A recent investigation by scientists at the U.S. Geological Survey
shows that strange animal behavior might help predict earthquakes.
Investigators found such occurrences within a ten-kilometer radius of the
epicenter of a fairly recent quake. Some birds screeched and flew about
wildly; dogs yelped and ran around uncontrollably.
Line 5. Scientists believe that animals can perceive environmental changes
several hours or even days before the mishaps. Animals were notes as being
restless for several weeks before a Tashkent, Uzbekistan, earthquake. An hour
before the disaster, domestic animals refused to go indoors and dogs howled
and barked furiously. In 1960, an earthquake struck Agadir in Morocco.
Survivors recall that stray animals, including dogs, were seen streaming out
of town before the earthquake. In a safari zoo near San Francisco, llamas
would not eat the evening before a 1979 quake, and they ran around wildly all
night.
Line 12. Unusual animal behavior preceding earthquakes has been noted for
centuries. British Admiral Robert Fitzroy reported huge flocks of screaming
seabirds over Conception, Chile, in 1835. An hour and half later, dogs were
seen fleeing, and ten minutes later the town was destroyed. Similar stories
of chickens running around in apparent states of panic, horses trembling and
dogs barking incessantly were recorded throughout the eighteenth and
nineteenth centuries by survivors of earthquake destruction in India, 
Yugoslavia, Peru, Mexico and the Unites States.
Line 18. In 1976, after monitoring bizarre animal behavior, the Chinese
predicted a devastating earthquake. Although hundreds of thousand of people
were killed, the government was able to evacuate millions of others people
and thus keep the death toll at a lower level.
1. What prediction may be made by observing animal behavior? 
a. An impending earthquake 
b. The number of people who will die 
c. The ten-kilometer radium from the epicenter 
d. The fact that an earthquake has occurred.

2. The author implies that animals are aware of an impending earthquake because 
a. Of their intelligence 
b. They have certain instinctive abilities to perceive that human do not possess 
c. They are generally closer to the epicenter than the human observers 
d. They react to other animal behaviors

3. The word "evacuate" in line 20 closest in meaning to 
a. remove 
b. exile 
c. Destroy 
d. emaciate

4. All of the following statement are true EXCEPT 
a. some animals may be able to sense an approaching earthquake 
b. by observing animal behavior scientist perhaps can predict earthquakes 
c. the Chines have successfully predicted an earthquake and saved may lives 
d. only dogs and horses seem to possess the special perception that allows
them to predict earthquakes

5. In line 3 the word " epicenter" is nearest in meaning to 
a. stratosphere 
b. Contour 
c. Periphery 
d. Core

6. The passage implies that if scientist can accurately predict earthquakes
there will be 
a. fewer animal going crazy 
b. a lower death rate 
c. fewer people evacuated 
d. fewer environmental changes

7. In line 18 "devastating" means most nearly the same as 
a. destructive 
b. voracious 
c. intense 
d. forthcoming

I. Logical and Analytical Reasoning Ability:

A. Part I : Logical Reasoning Ability [1 x 9 = 9 Marks] 

For Question 1-5 : Six actors - Bob, Carol, Dave. Ed, Frank, and Grace - are
auditioning for a part in an off-Broadway play. The auditions for a part in
an off-Broadway play. The auditions will take place over four consecutive
days, starting on a Thursday. Each actor will have one audition. The days on
which the different actors will audition must conform to the following conditions :
At least one audition will take place on any day.
No more than two auditions will take place on any day
No more than 3 auditions will take place on any two consecutive days
Bob's audition must take place on Saturday
Carol's audition must take place on the same day as another audition
Frank's audition must take place on a day before grace's audition 
Dave's audition must take place on a day after Ed's audition

1. if only one audition takes place on Thursday, which actor could have that audition 
a. Bob 
b. Carol 
c. Dave 
d. Frank 
e. Grace

2. If Bob's and frank's auditions are on the same day, which of the following
must be true 
a. Dave's audition will take place on Thursday 
b. Dave's audition will take place on Friday 
c. Grace's audition will take place on Thursday 
d. Carol's audition will take place on Sunday 
e. Ed's audition will take place on Sunday

3. If the director decides to two hold the auditions on Thursday and two on
Sunday, how many actors would be eligible to audition on Friday 
a. 1 
b. 2 
c. 3 
d. 4 
e. 5

4. If Ed and Grace have their auditions on the same day, which of the following 
must be true? 
a. Ed's audition will take place on Thursday 
b. Frank's audition will take place on Thursday 
c. Carol's audition will take place on Saturday 
d. Grace's audition will take place on Saturday 
e. Carol's audition will take place on Sunday

5. If Ed's audition is on Saturday, which of the following actors cannot
audition on the same day as any other actor? 
a. Bob 
b. Carol 
c. Ed 
d. Frank 
e. Grace

For Question 6-9 : As part of their sports physicals, seven collegiate athletes - 
F, G, H, I, J, K & L - are being weighed. In announcing the results of the physical 
exams, the coach has given the following information:
None of the athletes is exactly the same weight as another athlete
K is heavier than L, but lighter than H
I is heavier than J
Both F and G are heavier than H.

6. Each of the following could be true EXCEPT 
a. F is the heaviest 
b. G is the heaviest 
c. I is the heaviest 
d. More than three athletes are heavier than K 
e. More than three athletes are lighter than K

7. Which of the following, if true, would be sufficient to determine which athlete is 
the lightest? 
a. I is the heaviest 
b. I is lighter than K 
c. K is heavier than J 
d. J is heavier than K 
e. Exactly five students are lighter than F

8. If J is heavier than F, how many different rankings, by weight, of the athletes are possible? 
a. 1 
b. 2 
c. 4 
d. 6 
e. 8

9. If H is heavier than I, which of the following CANNOT be true? 
a. I's weight is equal to the average of F's weight and G's weight 
b. I's weight is equal to the average of K's weight and L's weight 
c. J's weight is equal to the average of K's weight and L's weight 
d. J is the second lightest 
e. J is the lightest

A. Part II : Logical Reasoning Questions [2 x 8 = 16 Marks] 

Select the best answer for each of the following questions.

1. Someone wishes to deduce the conclusion that there are at least two men in
Calcutta who have exactly the same number of hair on their heads. He begins
with a premise that there are more men in Calcutta than there are hair on the
head of any person in the entire world(whether men or women). 
The desired conclusion can be validly deduced
a. From the original premise just as it stands 
b. If we add a premise that no man in Calcutta is completely bald, but not
from the original premise as it stands. 
c. If we add the premise that there are at least as many men in Calcutta as
women, but not from the original premise as it stands. 
d. Only if we add the premise that no man in Calcutta is completely bald, but
not from the premise as it exactly stands. 
e. Only if we add the premise that there are at least as many men in Calcutta
as women, but not from the original premise as it stands.

2. Department stores range from two to eight floors in height .If a store has
more than three floors, it has an elevator. If the statements above are true, which 
of the following must also be true?
a. Second floors do not have elevators 
b. Seventh floors have elevators 
c. Only floors above the third floors have elevators 
d. All floors may be reached by elevators 
e. Some two-floor department stores do not have elevators
1. A valid argument is often defined as one in which it is not possible for
all the premises to be true and the conclusion false. A circular argument is
sometimes defined as one on which one of the premises is identical to the conclusion.
From these definitions we can infer that...
a. Every circular argument is valid 
b. Every argument is circular. 
c. No circular argument is valid 
d. Some circular arguments are valid, and some are not. 
e. Some circular arguments are not valid, and some valid arguments are not circular.

Questions 13 and 14 refer to the following scenario:
In a horse race involving six horses, three of the entries were Bag O'Bones,
Cold Molasses, and Three-Leg Charlie. All six horses finished, one after the other.
1. No horse finished ahead of Cold Molasses, and no horse finished behind Bag
O'Bones. Also, no horse finished between Cold Molasses and Three-Leg Charlie.
Therefore,
a. Cold Molasses finished second or third. 
b. Bag O'Bones came in fourth or better. 
c. Three-Leg Charlie finished second or third. 
d. Three-Leg Charlie may have finished first, but atleast he did not finish last. 
e. Bag O'Bones finished ahead of Cold Molasses. 

1. Four horses finished between Bag O'Bones and Cold Molasses. Therefore,
a. Cold Molasses finished last. 
b. Bag O'Bones finished second or third. 
c. Bag O'Bones finished fifth. 
d. Three-Leg Charlie did not finish last. 
e. Either Bag O'Bones finished fifth, or Three-Leg Charlie came in third. 
1. Administrators and executives are members of the most stable occupation.
The stability mentioned in the above statement could be dependent on each of
the following factors except
a. Training and skills. 
b. Nature of the occupation. 
c. Status 
d. Relatively high income 
e. Rate of turnover
1. A recent newspaper feature story listed several factors, as "predictors"
of likelihood of premature death .Two of these factors were a sedentary life
style without regular physical exercise, and sleeping more than 12 hours daily.
If a person were to respond to this news by both joining as an exercise club
and buying an alarm clock, that person would probably be
a. Mistaking an explanation for an argument 
b. Mistaking an argument for an explanation 
c. Mistaking a premise for a conclusion 
d. Mistaking a cause for an indicator 
e. Mistaking an indicator by a cause
1. Ellen : "All three of Shirley's children have the measles!"
Lois: "As a matter of fact, all three of Shirley's children are fine!"
Accepting the assumption that nobody who has measles is fine, which of the
following is true about this exchange?
a. It is possible that both Ellen and Lois are right about Shirley's children. 
b. It is possible that both Ellen and Lois are mistaken about Shirley's children. 
c. Either Ellen is right about Shirley's children, or Lois is right about them, but 
they are not both right. 
d. Ellen and Lois might be both right about Shirley's children, and they might both 
be wrong about them. 
e. None of these alternatives correctly identifies the possibilities for this scenario.

I. Problem Solving Ability 

A. Part I : Problem Solving Ability [1 x 25 = 25 Marks] 
1. A truck departed from Newton at 11:53a.m. and arrived in Far City, 240 miles away, 
at 4:41 p.m. on the same day. What was the approximate average speed of the truck 
on this trip?
a. 16/1,200 MPH 
b. 40/288 MPH 
c. 1,494/240 MPH 
d. 50 MPH
1. If m,n,o and p are real numbers, each of the following expressions equals m(nop) EXCEPT
a. (op)(mn) 
b. ponm 
c. (mn)(mo)(mp) 
d. (mp)(no)
1. If the ratio of women to men in a meeting is 4 to 1, what percent of  the persons in the meeting are men?
a. 20% 
b. 25% 
c. 33 1/3% 
d. 80%
1. Tom received 89, 94, 86, and 96 on the first algebra tests. What grade
must he receive on his last test to have an average of 92?
a. 92 
b. 94 
c. 91 
d. 95
1. If the measures of the three angles of a triangle are (3x + 15), (5x-15), and (2x + 30), what is the measure of each angle?
a. 75 
b. 60 
c. 45 
d. 25
1. Which of the following equations can be used to find a number x, if the
difference between the square of this number and 21 is the same as the
product of 4 times the number?
a. x - 21 = 4x 
b. x2- 21 = 4x 
c. x2 = 21-4x 
d. x + 4x2=21
1. Emile receives a flat weekly salary of Rs.240 plus 12% commission of the
total volume of all sales he makes. What must his rupees volume be in a week
if he is to make a total weekly of Rs.540?
a. Rs.2,880 
b. Rs.3,600 
c. Rs.6,480 
d. Rs.2,500
1. A and B undertake to do a work for Rs.56. A can do it alone in 7 days and
B in 8 days. If with the assistance of a boy they finish the work in 3 days
then the boy gets Rs.--
a. 11 
b. 45 
c. 43 
d. 21
1. A postal truck leaves its station and heads for Chicago, averaging 40mph.
An error in the mailing schedule is spotted and 24 minutes after the truck
leaves, a car is sent to overtake the truck. If the car averages 50mph. how
long will it take to catch the postal truck?
a. 1.6 hours 
b. 3 hours 
c. 2 hours 
d. 1.5 hours
1. In a class of 40 students, 30 speak French and 20 speak German. What is
the lowest possible number of students who speak both languages?
a. 5 
b. 20 
c. 15 
d. 10
1. The value of B in the equation a = (h/2)(B+b) is
a. (2a - b)/h 
b. 2h/a - b 
c. 2a - b 
d. 2a/h - b
1. 
2. The perimeter of a square inscribed in the circumference of radius R is
a. 4R 
b. 8R 
c. 2R(2)1/2 
d. 4R(2)1/2
1. If R,S, and Q can wallpaper a house in 8 hours and R and S can do it in 12
hours, how long will it take Q alone to wallpaper the house ?
a. 12 hours 
b. 24 hours 
c. 8 hours 
d. 20 hours
1. An old picture has dimensions 33 inches by 24 inches. What one length must
be cut from each dimension so that the ratio of the shorter side to the
longer side is 2:3?
a. 2 inches 
b. 6 inches 
c. 9 inches 
d. 10 1/2 inches

1. In a group of 30 people the average height is 6 feet and 2 inches.
Therefore, we can assume that
1. everyone is 6ft and 2 inches
2. most of the people are 6ft and 2 inches.
3. not all could be taller than 6ft and 2 inches.
a. 2 only 
b. 3 only 
c. 1 and 2 only 
d. 1, 2 and 3
1. One wall being made entirely of bricks is 40% built. If we need 1,200 more
bricks to complete the wall, how many bricks will the wall have ?
a. 1,500 
b. 1,800 
c. 2,000 
d. 2,400
1. In a College Bookstore where all books are the same price, a + b books are
selling for Rs.1,000. Myron buys 12 books and for each one has a discount of
Rs.1. How much does Myron need to pay ?
a. [(a + b) - 1] x 12 
b. [(a + b)/1000 - 1] x 12 
c. [(1000/(a + b)) - 1] x 12 
d. [a + b] x 1
1. A square is inscribed in a circle of area 18p. What is the length of a side of the square ?
a. 6 
b. 3 
c. 3(2)1/2 
d. 6(2)1/2
1. A box contains 6 red marbles and 4 blue marbles. What is the probability
that if 2 marbles are simultaneously drawn from the box, both will be red ?
a. 2/3 
b. 1/3 
c. 1/2 
d. 1/5
1. If it is 250 kms from Delhi to Chandigarh and 120 kms from Delhi to
Jaipur, what percentage of the distance from Delhi to Chandigarh is the
distance from Delhi to Jaipur?
a. 12 
b. 24 
c. 36 
d. 48
1. A car goes 15 kms on a litre of petrol. When it is driven at 60 kms per
hour it only goes 80% as far. How many litres of petrol will it take to travel 120 kms 
driving at 60 kms per hour?
a. 2 
b. 6.4 
c. 8 
d. 9.6
1. The solution of the equation 4 - 5(2y + 4) = 4 is
a. 1.-2/5 
b. 8 
c. 4 
d. -2
1. I went to Lucky Duck Casino and in the first game I lost one-third of my
money, in the second game I lost half of the rest. If I still have Rs.1,000,
how much money did I have when I arrived at the Casino?
a. Rs.1,000 
b. Rs.2,000 
c. Rs.3,000 
d. Rs.6,000 
e. 
1. For each Rupee spent by the sales department, the research department
spends 20 paise. For every Rs. 4 spent by the research department, the
packing department spends Rs.1.50. The triple ratio of the money spent by the
sales department to the money spent by the research department to the money
spent by the packing department can be expressed as
a. 40 : 8 : 3 
b. 20 : 4 : 1 
c. 8 : 4 : 1 
d. 1 : 1 : 5 
e. 2 : 1 : 5
1. From the beginning to the end of 1996, the price of a rare book rose 20
percent. In 1997, it dropped 25 percent. In 1998, it rose 20 percent. What
percent of 1996`s starting price is 1998`s starting price?
a. 90 
b. 95 
c. 100 
d. 108

1. A 2MB PCM(pulse code modulation) has
a) 32 channels b) 30 voice channels & 1 signalling channel.
c) 31 voice channels & 1 signalling channel.
d) 32 channels out of which 30 voice channels, 1 signalling channel, & 
1 Synchronizatio channel. Ans: (c)

2. Time taken for 1 satellite hop in voice communication is
a) 1/2 second b) 1 seconds c) 4 seconds d) 2 seconds Ans: (a)

3. A dishonest shopkeeper professes to sell pulses at the cost price, but he uses a false weight of 950gm. for a kg. His gain is ...%.

4. Max number of satellite hops allowed in voice communication is :
a) only one b) more than one c) two hops d) four hops Ans: (c)

5. Conditional results after execution of an instruction in a micro processor is stored ina) register b) accumulator c) flag register d) flag register 
part of PSW(Program Status Word) Ans: (d)

6. Frequency at which VOICE is sampled is
a) 4 Khz b) 8 Khz c) 16 Khz d) 64 Khz Ans: (a)

7. Line of Sight is 
a) Straight Line b) Parabolic c) Tx & Rx should be visible to each other
d) none Ans: (c)

8. Purpose of PC(Program Counter) in a MicroProcessor is
a) To store address of TOS(Top Of Stack)
b) To store address of next instruction to be executed.
c) count the number of instructions.
d) to store base address of the stack. Ans: (b)

9. What action is taken when the processor under execution is interrupted by a
non-maskable interrupt?
a) Processor serves the interrupt request after completing the execution of the current instruction.
b) Processor serves the interupt request after completing the current task.
c) Processor serves the interupt request immediately.
d) Processor serving the interrupt request depends upon the priority of  the current task under execution. Ans: (a)
10.

The status of the Kernel is
a) task b) process c) not defined. d) none of the above. Ans: (b)

11. To send a data packet using datagram , connection will be established
a) before data transmission.
b) connection is not established before data transmission.
c) no connection is required.
d) none of the above. Ans: (c)

12. Word allignment is
a) alligning the address to the next word boundary of the machine.
b) alligning to even boundary.
c) alligning to word boundary.
d) none of the above. Ans: (a)

13. When a 'C' function call is made, the order in which parameters passed to the
function are pushed into the stack is 
a) left to right b) right to left
c) bigger variables are moved first than the smaller variales.
d) smaller variables are moved first than the bigger ones.
e) none of the above. Ans: (b)

14. What is the type of signalling used between two exchanges?
a) inband b) common channel signaling c) any of the above
d) none of the above. Ans: (a)

15. Buffering is 
a) the process of temporarily storing the data to allow for small variation in device speeds
b) a method to reduce cross talks
c) storage of data within transmitting medium until the receiver is ready to receive.
d) a method to reduce routing overhead. Ans: (a)

16. Memory allocation of variables declared in a program is
a) allocated in RAM. b) allocated in ROM. c) allocated on stack.
d) assigned to registers. Ans: (c)

16. Memory allocation of variables declared in a program is
a) allocated in RAM. b) allocated in ROM. c) allocated on stack.
d) assigned to registers. Ans: (c)

17. A software that allows a personal computer to pretend as a computer terminal is 
a) terminal adapter b) bulletin board c) modem d) terminal emulation
Ans: (d)

18. Find the output of the following program
int *p,*q;
p=(int *)1000;
q=(int *)2000;
printf("%d",(q-p)); Ans: 500

19. Which addressing mode is used in the following statements:
(a) MVI B,55 (b) MOV B,A (c) MOV M,A
Ans. (a) Immediate addressing mode.
(b) Register Addressing Mode
(c) Direct addressing mode

20. RS-232C standard is used in _____________. Ans. Serial I/O

21. Memory. Management in Operating Systems is done by
a) Memory Management Unit
b) Memory management software of the Operating System c) Kernel
Ans: (b)

22. What is done for a Push opertion?Ans: SP is decremented and then the 
value is stored.

23. Binary equivalent of 52 Ans. 110100

24. Hexadecimal equivalent of 3452 Ans. 72A

25. Explain Just In Time Concept ? Ans. Elimination of waste by purchasing manufacturing exactly when needed

26. A good way of unit testing s/w program is Ans. User test

27. OOT uses Ans. Encapsulated of detect methods

28. EDI useful in Ans. Electronic Transmission

29. MRPII different from MRP Ans. Modular version of man redundant initials

30. Hard disk time for R/W head to move to correct sector Ans. Latency Time

31. The percentage of times a page number bound in associate register is called
Ans. Bit ratio

32. Expand MODEM Ans. Modulator and Demodulator

33. RDBMS file system can be defined as Ans. Interrelated

34. Super Key is Ans. Primary key and Attribute

35. Windows 95 supports
(a) Multiuser (b) n tasks (c) Both (d) None Ans. (a)

36. In the command scanf, h is used for Ans. Short int

37. A process is defined as Ans. Program in execution

38. A thread is Ans. Detachable unit of executable code)

39. A thread is Ans. Detachable unit of executable code)

40. How is memory management done in Win95 
Ans. Through paging and segmentation

41. What is meant by polymorphism
Ans. Redfinition of a base class method in a derived class

42. What is the essential feature of inheritance 
Ans. All properties of existing class are derived

43. What does the protocol FTP do
Ans. Transfer a file b/w stations with user authentification

44. In the transport layer ,TCP is what type of protocol Ans. Connection oriented

45. Why is a gateway used Ans. To connect incompatible networks

46. How is linked list implemented Ans. By referential structures

47. What method is used in Win95 in multitasking Ans. Non preemptive check

48. What is a semaphore Ans. A method synchronization of multiple processes

49. What is the precedence order from high to low ,of the symbols ( ) ++ /
Ans.( ) , ++, /

50. Preorder of A*(B+C)/D-G Ans.*+ABC/-DG

51. What is the efficiency of merge sort Ans. O(n log n)

52. In which layer are routers used Ans.In network layer 

53. Which of the following sorting algorithem has average sorting behavior --Bubble sort, merge sort, heap sort, 
exchange sort         Ans. Heap sort

54. In binary search tree which traversal is used for getting ascending order
values--Inorder ,post order,preorder Ans.Inorder

55. What are device drivers used for        Ans.To provide software for enabling the hardware

56. What are device drivers used for      Ans.To provide software for enabling the hardware

57. What is make command in unix Ans. Used forcreation of more than one file

58. In unix .profile contains Ans. Start up program

59. In unix 'ls 'stores contents in Ans.inode block

60. Which of the following involves context switch,
(a) system call (b) priviliged instruction (c) floating poitnt exception
(d) all the above (e) none of the above Ans: (a)

61. In OST, terminal emulation is done in
(a) sessions layer (b) application layer (c) presentation layer 
(d) transport layer Ans: (b)

62. For 1 MB memory, the number of address lines required,
(a)11 (b)16 (c)22 (d) 24 Ans. (b)

63. Semaphore is used for
(a) synchronization (b) dead-lock avoidance (c) box (d) none Ans. (a)

64. Which holds true for the following statement class c: public A, public B
a) 2 member in class A, B should not have same name
b) 2 member in class A, C should not have same name
c) both  d) none Ans. (a)

65. Preproconia.. does not do which one of the following
(a) macro (b) conditional compliclation (c) in type checking (d) including load file
Ans. (c)

66. Piggy backing is a technique for
a) Flow control b) Sequence c) Acknowledgement d) retransmition Ans. (c)

67. Which is not a memory management scheme?
a) buddy system b) swapping c) monitors d) paging Ans : c

68. There was a circuit given using three nand gates with two inputs and one output.
Find the output.
a) OR b) AND c) XOR d) NOT Ans. (a)

69. Iintegrated check value(ICV) are used as: Ans. The client computes the ICV
and then compares it with the senders value.

70. When applets are downloaded from web sites , a byte verifier performs _________?
Ans. Status check

71. An IP/IPX packet received by a computer using... having IP/IPX both how the packet Is handled. Ans. Read the, field in the packet header with to 
send IP or IPX protocol.

72. The UNIX shell ....
a) does not come with the rest of the system
b) forms the interface between the user and the kernal
c) does not give any scope for programming
d) deos not allow calling one program from with in another
e) all of the above Ans. (b)

73. In UNIX a files i-node ......?
Ans. Is a data structure that defines all specifications of a file like the file size, number of lines to a file, permissions etc.

74. The very first process created by the kernal that runs till the kernal process is halts is
a) init b) getty c) both (a) and (b) d) none of these Ans. (a)

75. In the process table entry for the kernel process, the process id value is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 255 (e) it does not have a process table entry 
Ans. (a)

76. Which of the following API is used to hide a window
a) ShowWindow b) EnableWindow c) MoveWindowd) SetWindowPlacement
e) None of the above Ans. (a)

77. Which function is the entry point for a DLL in MS Windows 3.1
a) Main b) Winmain c) Dllmain d) Libmain e) None Ans. (b)

78. The standard source for standard input, standard output and standard error is a) the terminal b) /dev/null
c) /usr/you/input, /usr/you/output/, /usr/you/error respectively
d) None Ans. (a)

79. The redirection operators > and >>
a) do the same function b) differ : > overwrites, while >> appends
c) differ : > is used for input while >> is used for output
d) differ : > write to any file while >> write only to standard output
e) None of these Ans. (b)

80. The command grep first second third /usr/you/myfile
a) prints lines containing the words first, second or third from the file /usr/you/myfile
b) searches for lines containing the pattern first in the files second, third, and /usr/you/myfile and prints them
c) searches the files /usr/you/myfiel and third for lines containing the words first or second and prints them
d) replaces the word first with the word second in the files third and /usr/you/myfile
e) None of the above
Ans. (b)

81. You are creating a Index on EMPNO column in the EMPLOYEE table. Which
statement will you use?
a) CREATE INdEX emp_empno_idx ON employee, empno;
b) CREATE INdEX emp_empno_idx FOR employee, empno;
c) CREATE INdEX emp_empno_idx ON employee(empno); 
d) CREATE emp_empno_idx INdEX ON employee(empno); Ans. c

82. Which program construct must return a value?
a) Package b) Function c) Anonymous block d) Stored Procedure
e) Application Procedure Ans. b

83. Which Statement would you use to remove the EMPLOYEE_Id_PK PRIMARY KEY
constraint and all depending constraints fromthe EMPLOYEE table?
a) ALTER TABLE employee dROP PRIMARY KEY CASCAdE; 
b) ALTER TABLE employee dELETE PRIMARY KEY CASCAdE;
c) MOdIFY TABLE employee dROP CONSTRAINT employee_id_pk CASCAdE;
d) ALTER TABLE employee dROP PRIMARY KEY employee_id_pk CASCAdE;
e) MOdIFY TABLE employee dELETE PRIMARY KEY employee_id_pk CASCAdE;
Ans. a

84. Which three commands cause a transaction to end? (Chosse three)
a) ALTER b) GRANT c) DELETE d) INSERT e) UPdATE
f) ROLLBACK Ans. a ,b ,f

85. Under which circumstance should you create an index on a table?
a) The table is small.
b) The table is updated frequently.
c) A columns values are static and contain a narrow range of values
d) Two columns are consistently used in the WHERE clause join condition 
of SELECT statements.
Ans.d

86. What was the first name given to Java Programming Language. 
a) Oak - Java b) Small Talk c) Oak d) None Ans.a

87. A certain radioactive element A, has a half life = t seconds. In (t/2) seconds the fraction of the initial quantity of the element so 
far decayed is nearly
(a) 29% (b) 15% (c) 10% (d) 45% Ans. (a)

88. Which of the following plots would be a straight line ?
(a) Logarithm of decay rate against logarithm of time
(b) Logarithm of decay rate against logarithm of number of decaying nuclei
(c) Decay rate against time
(d) Number of decaying nuclei against time Ans. (b)

89. A radioactive element x has an atomic number of 100.
It decays directly into an element y which decays directly into element z.
In both processes a charged particle is emitted.
Which of the following statements would be true?
(a) y has an atomic number of 102 (b) y has an atomic number of 101
(c) z has an atomic number of 100 (d) z has an atomic number of 101
Ans. (b)

90. If the sum of the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c=0 is equal to the sum of
the squares of their reciprocals then a/c, b/a, c/b are in 
(a) AP (b) GP (c) HP (d) None of these Ans. (c)

91. A man speaks the truth 3 out of 4 times. He throws a die and reports it to be a 6.
What is the probability of it being a 6?
(a) 3/8 (b) 5/8 (c) � (d) None of the above Ans. (a)

92. If cos2A + cos2B + cos2C = 1 then ABC is a
(a) Right angle triangle (b) Equilateral triangle (c) All the angles are acute
(d) None of these Ans. (a)

93. Image of point (3,8) in the line x + 3y = 7 is
(a) (-1,-4) (b) (-1,4) (c) (2,-4) (d) (-2,-4) Ans. (a)

94. The mass number of a nucleus is 
(a) Always less than its atomic number (b) Always more than its atomic number
(c) Sometimes more than and sometimes equal to its atomic number
(d) None of the above Ans. (c)

95. The maximum KE of the photoelectron emitted from a surface is dependent 
on (a) The intensity of incident radiation (b) The potential of the collector
electrode (c) The frequency of incident radiation
(d) The angle of incidence of radiation of the surface Ans. (c

96. Which of the following is not an essential condition for interference
(a) The two interfering waves must be propagated in almost the same direction or 
the two interfering waves must intersect at a very small angle
(b) The waves must have the same time period and wavelength
(c) Amplitude of the two waves should be the same
(d) The interfering beams of light must originate from the same source 
Ans. (c)

97. When X-Ray photons collide with electrons 
(a) They slow down (b) Their mass increases (c) Their wave length 
increases (d) Their energy decreases Ans. (c)

98. An electron emits energy 
(a) Because its in orbit (b) When it jumps from one energy level to another
(c) Electrons are attracted towards the nucleus
(d) The electrostatic force is insufficient to hold the electrons in orbits
Ans. (b)

99. An electron emits energy 
(a) Because its in orbit (b) When it jumps from one energy level to another
(c) Electrons are attracted towards the nucleus
(d) The electrostatic force is insufficient to hold the electrons in orbits
Ans. (b)

100. How many bonds are present in CO2 molecule?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0 (d) 4 Ans. (d)